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Disability Sensitivity Training Final Exam

(30 Items)

Unit 1: Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA)

1. Which one (1) of the following statements BEST describes the Americans with Disabilities Act (ADA)?

A. Physical barriers encountered by passengers with disabilities

can frequently be overcome by employing simple changes in

layout and technology.

B. A service for people who are blind or have low vision that

makes the performing and visual arts more accessible.

C. Defines conditions caused by an accident, trauma, genetics or

disease which may limit a person’s mobility, hearing, vision,

speech or mental function.

D. Prohibits discrimination on the basis of disability in

employment, public services, public transportation, public

accommodations, and telecommunications.

2. Which one (1) of the following is NOT one of the five ADA titles?

A. Employment

B. Family Planning

C. Public Services

D. Telecommunications

3. Which one (1) of the following is the enforcement agency of ADA Title I?

A. FAA (Federal Aviation Administration)

B. FDA (Food and Drug Administration)

C. EEOC (Equal Employment Opportunity Commission)

D. ADAAG (ADA Accessibility Guidelines)

4. Which two (2) of the following are FACTS about the Americans with Disabilities Act?

A. The ADA requires business to remove barriers overnight.

B. Federal tax incentives are available to help meet the cost of

ADA compliance.

C. No unqualified job applicant or employee with a disability can

claim employment discrimination under the ADA.

D. The ADA is being misused by people with "bad backs" and

"emotional problems."

Unit 2: Air Carrier Access Act (ACAA)

5. Which one (1) of the following statements BEST defines the Air Carrier Access Act?

A. ACAA recognizes the physical barriers encountered by passengers

with disabilities CANNOT be overcome by employing simple

changes in layout and technology.

B. Adopted the principle that difficulties confronting passengers

with hearing or vision impairments will be relieved if they

are provided special information that is not available to all

other passengers.

C. A set of rules that guarantee elimination of problems that

travelers with disabilities face as they negotiate their way

through the nation’s complex air travel system from origin

to destination.

D. Required the Department of Transportation (DOT) to develop new

regulations that ensure that persons with disabilities will be

treated without discrimination in a way consistent with the

safe carriage of all passengers.

6. Which three (3) of the following air carriers are regulated by the

Air Carrier Access Act (ACAA)?

A. American Airlines

B. Air Canada

C. British Airlines

D. Delta Airlines

E. United Airlines

7. Which one (1) of the following organizations is required to have a Complaints Resolution Officer (CRO)?

A. All airports

B. All air carriers

C. ONLY international airports

D. The US Federal Government

8. Even with advanced notice, air carriers are NOT required to provide which three (3) of the following services or equipment?

A. Medical oxygen for use on board the aircraft.

B. Hook up for a respirator to the aircraft’s electrical supply.

C. Transportation for an electric wheelchair on an aircraft with

fewer than 60 seats.

D. Accommodations for a passenger who must travel on a stretcher.

E. Accommodations for 10 or more passengers with disabilities who

travel as a group.

9. An individual with a disability must use/undergo the same ________ as any other member of the traveling public.

A. escalators

B. stairways

C. parking spots

D. security screening

10. On new aircraft delivered after April 1992, priority space in the cabin shall be provided for stowage of at lease one passenger’s folding wheelchair only on aircraft with at least ________ or more seats.

A. 30

B. 60

C. 100

D. 200

11. According to Federal Aviation Agency (FAA) safety rules, which one (1) of the following aircraft seat(s) may be denied to a person with disabilities?

A. Exit row seats

B. First class cabin seats

C. Seats without moveable armrests

D. Seats more than three rows from a lavatory

Unit 3: Disability Etiquette

12. Which one (1) of the following statements BEST describes

disability etiquette?

A. It is nothing more than an educated attitude based on common

sense and common courtesy.

B. Depict people with disabilities as heroic or courageous

simply for getting on with their lives and living as normally

as possible.

C. Always look beyond the disability because they are now

individuals whose life in all its variety is more different

from yours than similar.

D. Be sensitive to the fact that people with disabilities are no

longer capable of being fully independent, productive members

of society.

13. There are preferred ways of treating a person with a disability with dignity. Which one (1) of the following is NOT considered appropriate terminology?

A. Never use the term "handicap" or "handicapped."

Use the term "disability."

B. Put the person first (e.g., "individual with disability." –

not – "disabled individual").

C. Do not use demeaning or negative phrasing (e.g., "confined to

a wheelchair," or "victim of cancer").

D. Always apologize for using common phrases (e.g., "see you

later," or "How about running over here." – when the person

being addressed cannot see or walk).

14. You are greeting a person with a severe loss of vision. Accompanying you, standing to your right side, is a person by the name of John Jones. After identifying yourself, which one (1) of the following statements is an example of proper conversational etiquette?

A. "To my right is John Jones."

B. "I’ve brought with me John Jones."

C. "Along with me is a guy named John Jones."

D. Say nothing more. The presence of John Jones is not important.

15. When you are planning to interview an individual with a disability, which three (3) of the following should be checked prior to the interview?

A. Are there accessible restrooms?

B. Does the building have a cafeteria?

C. Is there a ramp or step-free entrance to the building?

D. Is the building less than one mile from an emergency

medical facility?

E. If the interview is not on the first floor, does the building

have an elevator?

16. When interviewing a person who is deaf or hearing impaired, and an interpreter present, it is commonplace for the interpreter to be ________

A. seated directly behind the interviewer.

B. seated beside the interviewer, across from the interviewee.

C. consulted or regarded only as a reference for the interview.

D. in another room but visible to the interviewee through a

glass window.

Unit 4: Appropriate Terminology

17. Which one (1) of the following BEST describes the term for a disability that has existed since birth? This condition includes mental retardation, head injuries, learning disabilities, and strokes.

A. Spastic

B. Spina Bifida

C. Congenital Disability

D. Developmental Disability

18. Which three (3) of the following terms are unacceptable and should be avoided when referring to people with disabilities?

A. Partially challenged

B. Afflicted with

C. Hemiplegia

D. Cripple

E. Victim

19. 19. Match the following symbols to their associated titles.






A. __________ (1) Braille Symbol or Braille)






B. __________ (2) Access (Other than Print)






C.____________ (3) Assistive Listening Systems






D.____________ (4) Telephone Typewriter (TTY)






E.____________ (5) International Symbol of Access






F.__________ (6) Information Symbol






G. _____________ (7) Sign Language Interpretation

20. Match the People First SAY to their appropriate INSTEAD OF.

SAY INSTEAD OF

A. ___ brain injury (1) handicapped parking

B. ___ he/she has autism (2) he/she has a problem with

C. ___he/she needs or uses (3) the handicapped or disabled

D. ___people with disabilities (4) brain damaged

E. ___accessible parking (5) birth defect

F. ___congenital disability (6) he/she is autistic

Unit 5: Relating To People With Disabilities

21. Which one (1) of the following is considered a handicap and NOT a disability?

A. mobility impairments

B. Narrow doorways and curbs

C. Speech and language impairments

D. mental and learning disabilities

22. Impatience, prejudice, and poor communication style are examples of which one (1) of the following communication barriers?

A. Accessible

B. Attitudinal/Behavior

C. Environmental

D. Physical

23. Which one (1) of the following is the BEST way to get the attention of a person with a hearing impairment?

A. Shout repeatedly until they acknowledge you.

B. Stand beside them and vigorously clap your hands together

C. Tap the person on the shoulder or wave your hand.

D. Place yourself directly in front and within six inches of

their face.

24. When introduced to a person with a disability, which one (1) of the following is acceptable?

A. Shaking hands with the left hand.

B. Leaning on the person’s wheelchair.

C. Immediately raising your voice when extending a verbal welcome.

D. Patronizing people using wheelchairs by patting them on the

head or shoulder.

25. According to Unit 5 of the training course, which two (2) of the following are considered "Do’s?"

A. Assume that your work place is accessible.

B. Learn where to find and recruit people with disabilities.

C. Learn how to communicate with people who have disabilities.

D. Be embarrassed if you use a common expression such as

"See you later" that seems to relate to the person’s

disability.

Unit 6: Effective Communication

26. Which one (1) of the following is the BEST example of listening more carefully and responsively?

A. Always agree with another person’s thoughts and feelings.

B. You approve of the other person’s actions or ways of

experiencing.

C. Do not listen to your own heart in order to eliminate

identities and integrities different from your own.

D. Give a brief restatement of what you have heard (especially

feelings) before you express your own needs or position.

27. Which one (1) of the following is the BEST example of explaining your conversational intent and inviting consent?

A. Participation in conversation with others is an obligation and

not necessarily a gift.

B. Refrain from being aware of and honest about all your

intentions when expressing yourself.

C. Begin special conversations with a preface that encourages

feedback from your conversation partner.

D. Never invite your conversation partner to join you in the

specific kind of conversation you want to have because this

puts pressure on them to respond.

28. Which one (1) of the following BEST describes an example of Challenge 4: "Translating complaints and criticism into requests?"

A. Developing a strong enough sense of self-esteem that you can

accept being turned down and still create solutions in which

everyone gets at least some of their needs met.

B. Developing the courage to tell the truth, growing beyond blame

in understanding painful experiences, and learning to make

friends with feelings.

C. Learning to be more aware of and honest about your

intentions, gradually giving up intentions to injure or

demean other people.

D. Deciding how you might shift your overall level of appreciation

and gratitude, toward other people, toward nature, and toward

life and/or a “Higher Power.”

29. Which one (1) of the following is the BEST reason to ask questions more "open-ended" and more creatively?

A. To separate our life and work with the lives and work of

other people.

B. To shut people up rather than opening them up.

C. To discourage your conversation partners to share more of

their thoughts and feelings.

D. To allow for a wide range of responses and/or to evoke a

more detailed response.

30. Which three (3) of the following are examples of "close-ended" questions?

A. So you didn't like that, huh?

B. Do you know how to fly this thing?

C. How are you feeling about all of this?

D. Don't you think it would be better if you did your

homework first?

E. How could I modify this proposal to meet more of

your requirements?